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Test final — CCS — Spécialiste certifié en codage médical (prépa-examen)

Répondez aux 45 questions. Il faut 80 % ou plus pour réussir. Vous pouvez réessayer autant de fois que vous le souhaitez.

Ce test final est disponible en anglais.

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Question 1The CCS credential certifies coders who work in:Inpatient settings onlyPhysician offices onlyBoth inpatient and outpatient settingsPharmacy billing only

Question 2Which organization administers the CCS certification?AAPCAMAAHIMACMS

Question 3ICD-10-CM codes are used to report:Diagnoses (the reason for the encounter)Inpatient proceduresDurable medical equipment onlyPhysician fee amounts

Question 4When assigning an ICD-10-CM code, the coder should:Code directly from the Alphabetic IndexLocate the term in the Index, then verify it in the Tabular ListUse the Tabular List onlyPick the first code in the chapter

Question 5An Excludes1 note in ICD-10-CM means:The code is exempt from POABoth codes may be reportedAn additional code is requiredThe two conditions cannot be coded together

Question 6How many characters does every ICD-10-PCS code contain?FiveExactly sevenThree to sevenUp to ten

Question 7Which character position in ICD-10-PCS identifies the Root Operation?Character 3Character 1Character 5Character 7

Question 8In ICD-10-PCS, cutting out an ENTIRE body part is which root operation?ExcisionDrainageResectionRepair

Question 9Cutting out a PORTION of a body part in ICD-10-PCS is:ResectionDestructionExcisionRemoval

Question 10Outpatient and physician procedures are most often coded with:ICD-10-PCSUB-04 revenue codesMS-DRGsCPT and HCPCS Level II

Question 11A CPT modifier is used to:Change the procedure code entirelyAssign a diagnosisRefine a code without changing its meaning (e.g., -59, -RT)Set the payment amount

Question 12In the OUTPATIENT setting, an unconfirmed ("probable") diagnosis should be:Not coded; code the signs/symptoms insteadCoded as if it were confirmedCoded with a POA of WIgnored entirely with no code

Question 13In the INPATIENT setting, a diagnosis documented as "probable" at discharge is:Never codedCoded as if it existedCoded only as a symptomReplaced with an unspecified code

Question 14The principal diagnosis is defined as the condition established AFTER STUDY to be chiefly responsible for:The patient's first symptomThe most expensive treatmentThe longest item on the problem listOccasioning the admission to the hospital

Question 15Which data set provides the definition of the principal diagnosis?HEDISMDSOASISUHDDS (Uniform Hospital Discharge Data Set)

Question 16A POA indicator of "Y" means the condition was:Not present at admissionClinically undeterminedPresent at the time of inpatient admissionExempt from reporting

Question 17Which POA indicator means "not present at the time of admission"?NYUW

Question 18POA indicators are most directly important because they affect:CPT modifier selectionHospital-Acquired Condition payment and the MS-DRGThe Alphabetic IndexHCPCS Level II codes

Question 19The ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting are:Optional best-practice suggestionsUpdated every five yearsPublished only by the AMAHIPAA-mandated and required for accurate coding

Question 20The official source of coding ADVICE that interprets the Guidelines for difficult cases is:The CPT AssistantAHA Coding ClinicThe Federal RegisterThe NCCI manual

Question 21The four Cooperating Parties for ICD-10-CM/PCS are:AMA, AAPC, CMS, FDAAHA, AHIMA, CMS, NCHSOIG, DOJ, CMS, HHSWHO, CDC, AMA, AHIMA

Question 22A single ICD-10-CM code that captures two related conditions is called a:Status codePlaceholder codeManifestation codeCombination code

Question 23In the etiology/manifestation convention, the coder sequences:The manifestation firstThe underlying etiology (cause) first, then the manifestationEither order is acceptableOnly the manifestation code

Question 24Inpatient hospital stays are grouped for Medicare payment into:MS-DRGsAPCsRVUsRUGs

Question 25A secondary diagnosis that can shift a case to a higher-paying MS-DRG is a:POA indicatorCC or MCC (Complication/Comorbidity or Major CC)Status indicatorModifier

Question 26Hospital OUTPATIENT facility services are paid under OPPS using:MS-DRGsPer-diem ratesRBRVSAPCs (Ambulatory Payment Classifications)

Question 27APC assignment is driven primarily by which code set?ICD-10-PCSCPT/HCPCSICD-10-CMNDC

Question 28Physician (professional) services are paid under the Medicare Physician Fee Schedule using:RBRVS relative value unitsMS-DRGsAPCsCase-mix index

Question 29The standard claim form for institutional (facility) billing is the:CMS-1500Form 837PADA dental claimUB-04 (CMS-1450)

Question 30The standard claim form for physician/professional billing is the:CMS-1500UB-04CMS-1450Superbill only

Question 31Reporting a higher-paying code than the documentation supports is called:UnbundlingUpcodingSequencingQuerying

Question 32Billing component codes separately when a single comprehensive code applies is:UpcodingUnbundlingBundlingCloning

Question 33The edits that determine which CPT code pairs may be reported together are the:POA editsLCD editsNCCI (National Correct Coding Initiative) editsUHDDS edits

Question 34When documentation is ambiguous or conflicting, the coder should:Choose the higher-paying optionAssume the more serious diagnosisQuery the provider for clarificationCode from the face sheet

Question 35A compliant physician query must NEVER:Lead the provider toward a specific answer or be tied to reimbursementInclude clinical indicators from the recordBe conciseBe documented

Question 36A coder may assign a code based on a query response only when:The query is verbally answeredThe CDI specialist agreesThe provider documents the response in the health recordThe payer approves it

Question 37Coded data is used for all of the following EXCEPT:Setting the provider's salaryQuality measurementPublic-health statisticsReimbursement

Question 38The case-mix index (CMI) reflects:The HCPCS modifier rateThe number of outpatient visitsThe average relative weight of a facility's casesThe number of coders on staff

Question 39HIPAA's "minimum necessary" standard requires that coders:Access all records for completenessRetain PHI indefinitelyShare PHI freely within the organizationUse or disclose only the PHI needed for the task

Question 40HIPAA is significant for coders partly because it:Eliminates the need for code booksSets physician salariesMandates the standard transaction and code sets (ICD, CPT, HCPCS)Replaces the Official Guidelines

Question 41The suffix "-ectomy" in medical terminology means:Surgical removalIncision intoCreating an openingRepair

Question 42A total lobectomy of a lung lobe is best coded in ICD-10-PCS as which root operation?ExcisionInspectionDrainageResection

Question 43When admitted for chemotherapy of a known malignancy, the FIRST-sequenced code is usually:The encounter for chemotherapy (Z51.11)The malignancy codeAn unspecified neoplasm codeA symptom code

Question 44On the CCS exam, when two codes both seem defensible, the best choice is the one supported by:The Official Guidelines or Tabular instructionThe highest reimbursementPersonal clinical intuitionThe shortest code

Question 45The most effective preparation for the CCS medical-record cases is to:Memorize individual codes in isolationFocus solely on CPT modifiersRead only the discharge summaryPractice coding and sequencing full timed records

Test final — CCS — Spécialiste certifié en codage médical (prépa-examen)

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